CSIR-NET LIFE SCIENCE QUIZ 24-25

This page will contain the questions regarding the CSIR NET examination unit-wise. There are both part-B and part-C type questions.

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Part-A:

Part-A

1 / 10

Intravenous (IV) fluid has to be administered to a child of 12 kg of dehydration, at a dose of 20 mg of fluid per kg of body weight, in 1 hr. What should be the drip rate (in drops /min) of IV fluid? (1 mg= 20 drops)

2 / 10

A river is 4.1 km wide. A bridge is built across it has 1/7 of its length on one bank and 1/8 of its length on the other bank. Calculate the length of the bridge in km .

3 / 10

Seeds when soaked in water gain about 20% by weight and 10% by volume. By what factor does the density increase?

4 / 10

In how many distinguishable ways can the letters of the word CHANCE  be arranged?

5 / 10

The random errors associated with the measurement of P and Q are 10% and 2%, respectively. What is the percentage random error in P/Q?

6 / 10

Two cockroaches of the same species have the same thickness but different lengths and widths. Their ability to survive in oxygen deficient environments will be comprised if

7 / 10

If a person travels x% faster than normal, he reaches y minutes earlier than normal. What is his normal time of travel in minutes?

8 / 10

25% of 25% of a quantity is x% of that quantity where x is (in %)

9 / 10

In a museum, there were old coins with their respective years engraved on them, as follows.

P. 1837 AD

Q. 1907 AD

R. 1947 AD

S. 200 BC

Identify the fake coins.

10 / 10

The next number of the sequence 1, 5, 14, 30, 55,…….. is

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Unit-1: Molecules and their interaction relevant to Biology

1 / 20

Tryptic digest of the heptapeptide {built from 3 lysine (K), 2 alanine (A), 1 tyrosine (Y) and 1 phenylalanine (F)} yielded tri and tetrapeptide. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the heptapeptide?

2 / 20

Enzymes help to lower the activation energies of reactions by

3 / 20

Which one of the following nitrogen bases (used single letter) has the largest hydrogen bonding possibility?

4 / 20

Which statement best describes the pKa of amino groups in proteins?

5 / 20

Which one of the following interaction plays a major role in stabilizing B-DNA?

6 / 20

The oligopeptide F-A-R-P-M-T-S-R-P-G-F, is treated with trypsin , chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase-B. Apart from the original peptide, the number of fragments obtained will be

7 / 20

Which nitrogen of adenosine gets protonated if the pH of the nucleoside is lowered from 7 to 3?

8 / 20

The pH of blood of a healthy person is maintained at 7.4. Assuming that this pH is maintained entirely by the bicarbonate buffer  (pka1 and pka2 of carbonic acid are 6.1 and 10.3 respectively), the molar ratio of [bicarbonate]/[carbonic acid] in the blood is

9 / 20

In which form of DNA, the number of base pairs per helical turn is 10.5?

10 / 20

The free energy ΔG of a dissolved solute

11 / 20

Small RNAs with internally complementary sequences that form hairpin-like structure, synthesized as precursor RNAs and cleaved by endonucleases to form short duplexes are called

12 / 20

The area of allowed regions in the Ramachandran Plot will be least for

13 / 20

Consider the structure less oligopeptide, R-G-P-S-T-K-M-P-E-Y-G-S-T-D-Q-S-N-W-H-F-R. The number of bonds that will be cleaved by trypsin and chymotrypsin treatments separately, are:

14 / 20

The internal energy of a gas increases by 1J when it is compressed by a force of 1N through 2 meters. The heat change of the system is

15 / 20

The standard free energy change per mole for the reaction A ↔ B at 30°C in an open system is -1000 cal/mole. What is the approximate free energy change when the concentration of A and B are 100 micromolar and 100 millimolar respectively?

16 / 20

A 1% solution of a sugar polymer is digested by an enzyme (20 ug; MW=200,000). The rate of monomer sugar (MW=400) liberated was determined to have a maximal initial velocity of 10 mg formed/min. The turnover number will be

17 / 20

In an alpha helical polypeptide, the backbone hydrogen bonds are between

18 / 20

DNA is not hydrolyzed by alkali whereas RNA is readily hydrolyzed. This is because of

19 / 20

Chirality is DNA is due to

20 / 20

Reaction products inhibit catalysis in enzymes by

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Unit-2: Cellular organization:

Unit-2: Cellular organization:

1 / 15

Transport of water across aquaporins is regulated by the presence of which of the following sequence of three highly conserved amino acids?

2 / 15

Polar bear maintain their body temperature because they have more of

3 / 15

Which of the cyclins have/has essential functions in S-phase of cell cycle?

4 / 15

Na+ K+ ATPase is a tetramer of a 2-alpha and 2-beta subunits. On which of the following subunits are the Na+ and K+ binding sites present?

5 / 15

Both halophytes and glycophytes compartmentalize the cytotoxic ions into the intracellular compartment or actively pump them out of the cell to the apoplasts with the help of membrane transport proteins. Among these, the Na+ – H+ antiporter, NHX1 , is localized in the

6 / 15

Assuming that histone octamer forms a cylinder 9 nm in diameter and 5 nm in height and that the human genome forms 32 millions nucleosomes, what fraction of the volume of nucleus (6um diameter) is occupied by histone octamers?

7 / 15

Major stimulus for spore formation in bacteria is

8 / 15

All cytosolic proteins have nuclear export signals that allow them to be removed from the nucleus when it resembles after

9 / 15

Most common type of phospholipid in the cell membrane of nerve cells is

10 / 15

The membrane lipid molecules assemble spontaneously into bilayers when placed in water and form a closed spherical structure known as

11 / 15

An organism that has peroxidase and superoxide dismutase but lacks catalase is most likely an

12 / 15

Which of the following pairs of subcellular compartments is likely to have same pH and electrolyte composition?

13 / 15

if on e of the two fatty acyl chains is removed from the phosphoglyceride by hydrolysis in solution, such phospholipids will form

14 / 15

A single protofilament of microtubule grows at the speed of 2um/min. Considering that there is no catastrophe in the microtubule nucleation and the size of the tubulin is of the order of 5nm, how many tubulin units are added to growing microtubule per minute?

15 / 15

Which one of the listed below is a P-type ion transporter?

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Unit-3: Fundamental processes:

Unit- 3: Fundamental processes

1 / 10

Which one of the following  λ proteins acts both as an activator and repressor of transcription?

2 / 10

Select a cellular body which is not a part of the nuclear bodies:

3 / 10

An intron in a yeast reporter gene carries a mutation in the splice site branch point (UACUAAC to UACA*AAC). To suppress the mutation, a library of point mutants of snRNAs was introduced into the mutant strain. The suppressor is most likely to have a point mutation in

4 / 10

Which of the following statements is generally true about RNA polymerase II?

P. It is dedicated to transcribing RNA from a single transcription unit, generally a large transcript which is then processed to yield three types of ribosomal RNA.

Q. It transcribes varieties of small non-coding RNAs which are expressed in all cell types.

R. It generally synthesizes various types of mRNAs and small non coding RNAs.

S. It is exclusively involved in synthesis of rRNA and tRNA.

5 / 10

Addition of the antibiotic Cephalexin to growing E.coli cells lead to the filamentation of the cells, followed by lysis. Cephalexin is an inhibitor of

6 / 10

Telomerase, an RNA -protein complex which completes the replication of telomeres  during DNA synthesis, is a specialized

7 / 10

Which one of the following modification of proteins id co-translational?

8 / 10

In eukaryotic replication, priming of DNA synthesis and removal of RNA primer is catalyzed by

 

9 / 10

Aminoacyl tRNA are escorted to the ribosome by elongation factor

10 / 10

In eukaryotes, precursors of micro mRNAs  (miRNAs) and small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) are usually synthesized by

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Unit-4: Cell communication and cell signaling:

Unit-4: Cell communication and cell signaling

1 / 20

Vasopressin acts on the blood vessels leading to their constriction. Which one of the following signaling cascades will apply to the effect of vasopressin?

2 / 20

A pathogen like Mycobacterium, which colonizes inside the cells of the host, is likely to be least affected by which one of the following host immune defense mechanisms?

3 / 20

Which one of the following is a type of intercellular junction in animal cells?

4 / 20

Which one of the following is not related to the immediate hypersensitivity reactions?

5 / 20

Upon prolonged illumination, activated rhodopsin does not activate transducin, hence the vision is impaired. This could be because of the following statements:

P. Most of the activated Rhodopsin gets phosphorylated and is unable to activate transducin.

Q. Most of the activated Rhodopsin gets dephosphorylated and is unable to activate transducin.

R. Arrestin further interacts with phosphorylated rhodopsin.

S. Arrestin further interacts with dephosphorylated rhodopsin.

6 / 20

The mutation in an oncogene falls under which of the following classes?

7 / 20

Which of the following is not a cell adhesion protein?

8 / 20

Which of the following statements about the nuclear receptor superfamily is incorrect?

9 / 20

Entry of enveloped viruses into its host cells is mediated by

10 / 20

Which one of the following best defines an Oncogene?

11 / 20

Cytotoxic T-cell express

12 / 20

Which of the following is considered to be a combined B- and T-cell deficiency?

13 / 20

When adenoma is converted to metastatic adenocarcinoma, which of the following combination of proteins is almost certainly to be degraded?

14 / 20

A researcher would like to monitor changes in the level of a serum protein for which an antibody is available. Which one of the following methods would be best suited for the purpose?

15 / 20

Collagens are the most abundant components of the extracellular matrix. In order  to maintain normal physiological processes  like wound healing, bond development, etc. Which one of the following type of enzymes is most important?

16 / 20

The main difference between the normal and the transformed cells are

17 / 20

Which one of the following events never activates the G-protein coupled receptors for sequestering Calcium ions release?

18 / 20

What phenotype would you predict for a mutant mouse lacking one of the genes required for site-specific recombination in lymphocytes?

19 / 20

Match the following:

Human disease                                         Causal microbes

P. Chronic gastritis                                   1. Borrelia burgdorferi

Q. Lyme disease                                        2. Helicobacter pylori 

R. Scarlet fever                                         3. Rickettsia prowazekii

S. Typhus                                                   4. Streptococcus pyogenes

20 / 20

Which one of the following events will not usually lead to transformation of a normal cell into a cancer cell?

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Unit-5: Developmental Biology:

Unit-5: Developmental Biology:

1 / 10

A group of cells of amphibian blastula capable of inducing the organizer is called as

2 / 10

Hydra shows morphallactic regeneration and involves which one of the following signal transduction pathway in its axis formation?

3 / 10

Injection of Noggin mRNA in cells that will become the future ventral side of a frog embryo mimics the effect of an organizer graft to the ventral side. This experiment states that

P. Noggin is a transcription factor.

Q. Noggin induces ventral fates.

R. Noggin is involved in organizer fate.

S. Noggin is needed to induce a secondary axis.

4 / 10

During embryo germination in a grass family an absorptive organ that forms interface between the embryo and the starchy endosperm tissue is called

5 / 10

Based on ABC model during flower development, loss of class A activity results in the formation of only stamen and carpel. Which of the floral identity genes control the class A activity genes?

6 / 10

In which state of Arabidopsis embryogenesis is hypophysis first observed?

7 / 10

Choose the correct statements observed during the lens formation in Xenopus:

P. Lens induction can be established in the absence of the optic vesicle after priming of the head ectoderm by the anterior neural plate.

Q. The optic vesicle can induce the presumptive trunk ectoderm to form the lens.

R. Only the head ectoderm can respond to direct signals from the optic vesicle to form the lens.

S. The anterior neural plate primes the head ectoderm via BMP4 and Fgf8 prior to the signals from the optic vesicle.

8 / 10

Engrailed expression in Drosophila defines

9 / 10

Which one of the following developmental processes in animals is more dependent on the cellular movements?

10 / 10

During which one of the following stages of Arabidopsis embryogenesis, cell elongation throughout the embryonic axis and further development of the cotyledons occur?

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Unit-6: System Physiology: Plant:

Unit-6: System Physiology- Plants

1 / 10

What is the effect of sudden increase in the levels of ATP and citrate on an erythrocyte undergoing glycolysis?

2 / 10

Which one of the following is the correct function of JAZ protein family, a key regulator of Jasmonic acid (JA) signaling pathway response?

3 / 10

The plant hormone, Gibberellic acid is not associated with

4 / 10

Which of the following statements is incorrect for the Casparian strip?

5 / 10

Which one of the following statements is correct about xylem in plants?

6 / 10

The energy rich fuel molecule produced in the TCA cycle are

7 / 10

The following statements are made regarding secondary metabolites in plants:

A. All secondary metabolites are constitutively produced in all cells of a plant during its entire life

B. They serve as signals to help the plants survive adverse conditions

C. They may be volatile compounds

D. they contribute to flower color

8 / 10

For which one of the plant hormone biosynthetic pathways, 1-aminocyclopropane-1-carboxylic acid is an intermediate?

9 / 10

Dichlorophenyldimethylurea is an inhibitor of

10 / 10

Which of the following compounds is not a part of alkaloid class of secondary metabolites?

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Unit-7: System Physiology: Animal:

Unit-7: System Physiology: Animal

1 / 10

A  monkey undergoes cerebellectomy. After the post-operative recovery, the monkey was given a task to press a bar. The possible observations are:

P. Its hand would overshoot the target while reaching the bar.

Q. it would be unable to move forelimbs.

R. It would show intention tremor while trying to press the bar.

S. it would press the bar with mouth instead of hands

Which one of the following combinations is correct:

 

2 / 10

A 1 meter tall object was placed 10 meter in front of a normal eye. The size of the image on the retina will be (consider distance between lens and retina= 1.7 cm)

3 / 10

Which of the following waves is likely to be absent in a normal frog ECG

4 / 10

In a normal human eye, for sharp image formation on the retina, maximum dioptric power is provided by the

5 / 10

An organism having heart for circulation, excretes through green glands. It has several ganglia and tactile organs on its body and its larval form is very different than its adult form. This organism is most likely to respire by

P. exchanging O2 and CO2 through an extensive tracheal system.

Q. Gaseous exchange over thinner areas of cuticle or by gills

R. an efficient tracheal system that delivers O2 directly to the tissues.

S. a double transport system, where the circulating fluid contains a dissolved respiratory pigment

Which one of the following combinations is correct:

 

6 / 10

Spinal cord of an animal was transected at C1/C2 level. The respiration of the animal stopped and it needed artificial respiration. However, the heart continued to beat at a slower rate. Some of the explanations given were:

A. Respiration regulatory center is located in the medulla.

B. Respiration regulatory center is located above the C1/C2 cut.

C. Heart regulatory center is above the C1/C2 cut.

D. Heart has autoregulation.

Which one of the following combinations is correct:

 

7 / 10

Graves disease is associated with

8 / 10

The core body temperature of a human rises above normal, which of the following processes would be initiated?

9 / 10

During urine formation, the filtration of blood at the glomerulus is

10 / 10

The T-waves of ECG indicates

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Unit-8: Inheritance Biology:

Unit-8: Inheritance Biology

1 / 10

A three point test cross was carried out in Drosophila involving three adjacent genes X, Y and Z arranged in the same order. The distance between X to Y and between Y to Z are 32.5 mu and 20.5 mu respectively. The coefficient of coincidence = 0.886. What is the percentage of the double recombinants in the progeny obtained from the test cross?

2 / 10

A gene encoding tRNA undergoes a mutational event in its anticodon region that enables it to recognize a mutant nonsense codon and permit completion of translation. Such a mutation is called

3 / 10

A cross is made between a pure breeding plant having red colored flowers with a pure breeding plant having white colored flowers. This cross is called

4 / 10

The distance between the bacterial gene as determined from interrupted mating experiments are measured in units of

5 / 10

Assuming a 1 : 1 sex ratio, what is the probability that three children from the same parents will consist of two daughters and one son?

6 / 10

The allele ‘l’ in Drosophila is recessive, sex-linked and lethal when homozygous and hemizygous. If a female of the genotype is Ll is crossed with a male, what is the ratio of females : males in the progeny?

7 / 10

Two inbreed lines of beans were intercrossed. In F1 the variance in bean length was measured as 2.0. The F1 was selfed to obtain F2 and the variance in bean length in F2 was 7.0. The broad heritability of bean length in the F2 population will be

8 / 10

Mutation in gene ‘X’ leads to lethality in a haploid organism. Which one of the following is best suited to analysis the function of gene ‘X’?

9 / 10

Which of the following mutagen is most likely to result in a single amino acid change in a gene product?

10 / 10

Aneuploid females with only one X-chromosome is a feature of individuals with

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Unit-9: Diversity of Life forms:

Unit-9: Diversity of Life forms

1 / 10

As per the cladistic taxonomy, Archosaurs are a group of diapsid amniotes which includes extinct dinosaurs. The living representatives of the group consist of

2 / 10

Match the following:

Features                                                Their potential role

P. Waxy cuticle                                    1. Mechanical support

Q. Lignified cell wall                          2. Protection against excess light

R. Homoiohydry                                 3. Restrict water loss

S. Pigmentation                                  4. Vascular system

3 / 10

Which of the following groups represents SAR clades of protists?

4 / 10

Bipinnaria and brachiolaria are the larval form of

5 / 10

Match the following:

Larva                                Phylum

P. Amphiblastula           1. Mollusca

Q. Nauplius                     2. Echinodermata

R. Glochidium                3. Porifera

S. Bipinnaria                   4. Arthropoda

5. Annelida

6 / 10

Which of the following is not true for monocots?

7 / 10

An algae having chlorophyll a, floridean starch as storage product and lacking flagellate cells belongs to the class:

8 / 10

The following is a list of reproductive structures found in vascular and non vascular plants.

P. Archegonia

Q. Microspore

R. Capsule

S. Fern frond

T. Pollen

U. Corolla

Which of the following combinations represents structures primarily associated with the gametophytic  life cycle of these plants?

9 / 10

Which of the following bryophytes has multicellular rhizoids and its cells mostly contain numerous chloroplasts?

10 / 10

If you want to divide a human body into dorsal and ventral sections, what plane will you use?

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Unit-10: Ecological principles:

Unit 10: Ecological Principles

1 / 20

According to MacArthur and Wilson’s equilibrium theory, which of the following is true?

2 / 20

Individuals occupying a particular habitat and adapted to it phenotypically but not genotypically are known as

3 / 20

For a species having logistic growth, if K=20000 and r= 0.15, the maximum sustainable yield will be

4 / 20

A plot of dN/dt as a function of population density yields a

5 / 20

Given below are the population pyramids of three different populations A, B and C depicting the relationship between birth and death rates in each.

Based on the population pyramids given above, which of the following is incorrect?

6 / 20

Temporal isolation in breeding seasons between closely related species leads to reproductive isolation. Given below are breeding seasons of different species of frogs.

 

7 / 20

In the context of the diversity pattern of species, which one of the following statements is incorrect?

8 / 20

A species whose life history strategies allow for high intrinsic rates of increase (r-strategist) will also exhibit that following except

9 / 20

Which of the following statements is incorrect about a keystone species?

10 / 20

Given below are the growth equations where dN/dt is defined as-

P) rN/K

Q) rN

R) rN [(K-N)/N]

S)  rN [(K-N)/K]

11 / 20

Following table shows the number of individuals of five tree species in a community:

Tree species              Number of individuals

A                                           50

B                                           20

C                                           20

D                                           05

E                                            05

Based on the above, the Simpson’s diversity (DS) index of the community will be

12 / 20

Complete the following hypothetical life table of a species to calculate the net reproductive rate R0:

The calculated R0 will be

13 / 20

Compared to k-selection, r-selection favors

14 / 20

For the aquaculture farming of Indian major carps several techniques are used. Which one of the following techniques is not used for this purpose?

15 / 20

Which of the following is likely to contribute to the stability of an ecosystem?

16 / 20

The population density of an insect species increases from 40 to 46 in one month. If the birth rate during that period is 0.4, what is the death rate?

17 / 20

Individuals with greater mass have a smaller surface area to volume ratio, which helps to conserve heat. This is known as

18 / 20

Which of the following is not an attribute of a species that makes it vulnerable to extinction?

19 / 20

Which of the following would contribute to intrinsic fluorescence to a protein?

20 / 20

Which gas does not contribute to global warming through its greenhouse effect?

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Unit-11: Evolution and Behavior:

Unit- 11: Evolution and Behavior

1 / 10

If the ratio of the number of non-synonymous to synonymous substitution per site in protein coding gene is greater than one, it is an evidence of selection that is

2 / 10

The frequencies of two alleles p and q for a gene locus in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are 0.3 & .07 respectively. After a few generations of inbreeding, the heterozygote frequency was found to be 0.28. The inbreeding coefficient in this case is

3 / 10

Which of the following behavioral changes are expected in a rat when its nucleus accumbens is experimentally ablated?

4 / 10

The Hardy-Weinberg Principle comes from considering what happens when Mendelian genes act in a population. The model predicts that there will be no change in allele frequencies when

5 / 10

In bird species where both parents contribute equally to parental care, generally

6 / 10

Which of the following evolutionary processes played an important role in the evolution of complex immune system?

7 / 10

Character similarity both can be interpretated as common descent is called

8 / 10

Evolution of multigene family occurs by

9 / 10

Pair the species in the list to demonstrate the concept of convergent evolution between the given two continents:

South America                            Africa

P. Agouti                                    1. Bosman’s Potto

Q. Giant Armadillo                  2. Chevrotain

R. Paca                                       3. Pangolin

S. Three toed sloth                  4. Royal Antelope

10 / 10

Match the following:

Bird species                        Food type

P. Barn swallow                 1. Fruits

Q. Great hornbill               2. Insects

R. House sparrow             3. Nectar

S. Purple Sunbird             4. Seeds

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Unit-12 [Applied Biology] and Unit-13 [Methods in Biology]:

Unit-12 [Applied Biology] and Unit-13 [Methods in Biology]:

1 / 10

The sequence of the peptide KGLITRTGLIKR can be unequivocally determined by

2 / 10

Molecular polymorphic markers are already known with respect to tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) resistance in tobacco. Among these, which marker system you will select that will be simple, economic and less time consuming?

3 / 10

Which one of the following can be analyzed using Surface Plasmon Resonance method?

4 / 10

The use of Kruskal Wallis test is more appropriate in which of these cases?

5 / 10

A and B are two enantiomeric helical peptides. Their chirality can be determined by recording their

6 / 10

Which one of the following will be observed when auxin to cytokinin ratio is increased in culture medium during organogenesis from tobacco pith callus?

7 / 10

TILLING is a reverse genetics approach used in functional genomics. Which one of the following is used for TILLING?

8 / 10

In order to check whether a protein has been phosphorylated during treatment with a drug, you would perform

9 / 10

Which genes have been introduced in Bollgard II cotton to get resistance against cotton bollworm, tobacco budworm and pink bollworm?

10 / 10

Given below a table comprising various terms associated with plant tissue culture in column A and column B

Column A                           Column B

P. Auxin                              1. Embryogenesis

Q. Protoplast culture       2. 6-Furfurylaminopurine

R. Cytokinin                      3. Pectinase and cellulase

S. Microspore culture     4. Indole- 3 acetic acid

Choose the correct option:

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